In the most up-to-date BPP text in the Value-at-Risk section on page 170 it state:
"When the random variable follows the normal distribution, the VAR at specific probability levels is easily calculated as a multiple of the standard deviation. For example, the 5% VAR is simply 1.645(standard deviation symbol); the 1% VAR is 2.33(sd symbol)"
My question is where do we obtain the 1.645 and 2.33 from?
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Value-at-Risk (VAR) and standard deviation
This is all explained in my free lecture on VaR which is the first lecture listed on this page:
https://opentuition.com/acca/p4/acca-p4-lectures/
Oh sorry sir, forgot that was there.
Just watched it and it all makes sense, perfectly explained.
Once again Thanks to OT and ofcourse to you too Sir!
You are welcome :-)
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