Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Unrealised profit (Q1, June 2012)
- This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 12 years ago by MikeLittle.
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- October 18, 2012 at 12:28 pm #54762
Hi Mike,
I understand why unrealised profit reduces the value of inventory, but please could you explain why URP doesn’t affect the values of consolidated trade receivables and current liabilities?
Thank you,
Dan
October 18, 2012 at 4:47 pm #105697Because both the receivables and the payables are correct in each of the company’s records. When we add those across, of course we eliminate the intra-group balances.
But when it comes to inventory, the pup is included within the cost price so far as the buying company is concerned.
In the UK, all those years ago when I used to teach book-keeping, it was not unusual to say that “inventory is its own double entry”. That simply meant that if we increased inventory on the Balance Sheet, we also increased inventory in the Income Statement.
When eliminating the pup, the opposite effect still supports the double entry. We decrease inventory on the Balance Sheet and reduce closing inventory in the cost of sales calculation. The Balance Sheet adjustment is easy – simply reduce the value of inventory and therefore the asset “side”.
The reduction of closing inventory in the cos calculation has the effect of increasing cost of sales and therefore reducing the profit.
So, calculate the pup, deduct it from closing inventory on the Balance Sheet and increase the cost of sales, thereby reducing profits
October 25, 2012 at 9:25 pm #105698Quote:But when it comes to inventory, the pup is included within the cost price so far as the buying company is concerned.Thank you, that’s great. sorry does pup = unrealised profit?
October 26, 2012 at 10:38 am #105699Pup has different meanings depending where you are in the World. For example, I believe it means “kiss” in Romania.
However, for the purposes of F7 and P2, pup means “Provision for Unrealised Profit”
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