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Sir isn’t this true that an exclusion clause need to satisfy both common law and statutory rules then only it will be valid? This is mentioned in both Bpp text and kaplan text that exclusion clause must meet both common law and statutory rules.
If it says this in both BPP and Kaplan text books, why on this Earth are you asking me!
Just accept what the text books say – these publishers pay a lot of money to researchers and writers to prepare their texts so they are far better informed than I am
However, I still maintain that it would be an extraordinary exclusion clause that satisfied statute but not common law
Time to move on!
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