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Treatment for intragroup sale fix asset

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA FR Financial Reporting Forums › Treatment for intragroup sale fix asset

  • This topic has 2 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 11 years ago by Avatarlymeo.
Viewing 3 posts - 1 through 3 (of 3 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • June 1, 2014 at 5:05 pm #172387
    Avatarlymeo
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    Hi,
    I have an example like this:
    Parent Co (P) sell a machine to Subsidiary (S) with agreed value $3000.At the time of sale,carrying amount of machine is $2000.The estimate useful life of the plant at the date of sale was 4 yrs.Depreciation on straight line method.
    Can you please tell me how to calculate the unrealise profit, how it impact to other such as: Retain earning of both P and S and how to show in Consolidated SOFP ?
    Thank you!

    June 1, 2014 at 5:30 pm #172398
    AvatarMikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23368
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    In P’s records, make the adjustment for pups.

    Calculation of pup? $1,000 (that’s sale value less carrying value).

    Over 4 years = depreciation of 250

    Pup is therefore 1,000 less 250 = 750

    In working W3, consolidated retained earnings, in the P column, deduct 750

    In the combined total for TNCA, deduct 750

    Ok?

    June 1, 2014 at 6:01 pm #172424
    Avatarlymeo
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    yeb.Can i understand the depreciation of 250 like this?
    In P if not sell to S the Depreciation would be 2000/4 = 500
    Sell to S would record Depreciation at 3000/4 = 725
    Thus the dif is 250,is it the same way of your to get it?

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