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TREASURY AND ADVANCED RISK MANAGEMENT TECHNIQUES

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › TREASURY AND ADVANCED RISK MANAGEMENT TECHNIQUES

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by John Moffat.
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    Posts
  • July 30, 2019 at 10:01 pm #525669
    WILFRED
    Participant
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    A question that appeared in ACCA OF JUNE 2008-ASTEROID SYSTEMS appearing in the BPP Revision Kit upto June 2018 Q.NO.54 or Q.NO.55 OF THE SAME REVISION UPTO JUNE 2019.When I look at answers provided by the examiner,am unable to understand how the spot rate of 1.6244 was derived from the data provided in the question.
    Kindly assist me to understand this part.
    Thanks for your kind response.
    WILFRED

    July 31, 2019 at 6:41 am #525696
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54655
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It is the spot rate.

    The question says that the closing mid-point is 1.6242, and that the bid/offer spread is 239-244.

    What this means is that the exchange rate quoted in the ‘normal’ way is 1.6239 – 1.6244

    I would not worry too much about this. This question was set by the previous examiner who used to do some very strange things. The current examiner quotes exchange rates on the normal way and not as is in this question 🙂

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