Hi all,
I was wondering if someone can help?
My understanding is that transfers between spouses are at no gain/no loss.
So what would the treatment of a husband transferring a property to his wife. His wife selling it and then giving the cash back to him after the sale (they had already agreed to transfer the cash back pre-sale).
My understanding was that it would simply use the wifes CGT allowance to offset the gain?
Thanks