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Transfer pricing problem

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA PM Exams › Transfer pricing problem

  • This topic has 3 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • March 2, 2019 at 7:01 am #507087
    unibuti
    Member
    • Topics: 12
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Dear Sir, could you please help me with this problem?
    There was a question about setting transfer price in ACCA past exam which is as follows:
    C Co is the division selling components to Gearbox – another division of the same company and C Co is currently working to full capacity. The company’s policy is that divisions must always make internal sales first. C Co currently satisfies 60% of the external demand for its components. Its variable costs represents 40% of revenue.
    The financial results of Co is as follows:
    – External sales: $8010
    – Sales to Gearbox: $7550

    Here is what i did to determine the minimum transfer price
    The current external sales are 8010, so 40% more sales could be made externally is 40%*(8010/60%)= 5340 -> this is the lost sales if Co makes internal sales instead of external.
    -> Opportunity cost – lost contribution: 5340 * (100%-40% var cost) =3204
    Plus: variable cost of internal sales: 7550*40%=3020
    So the minimum price should be set is: 6224$

    However, here is the answer to the question
    From C Co’s perspective, of the current internal sales of $7,550,000, $5,340,000 could be sold externally if they were not sold to the Gearbox division. Therefore, in order for C Co not to be any worse off from selling internally, these sales should be made at the current price of $5,340,000.
    As regards the remaining internal sales of $2,210,000 ($7,550,000 – $5,340,000), C Co effectively has spare capacity to meet these sales. Therefore, the minimum transfer price should be the marginal cost of producing these goods. Given that variable costs represent 40% of revenue, this means that the marginal cost for these sales is $884,000. This is therefore the minimum price which C Co should charge for these sales.
    In total, therefore, C Co will want to charge at least $6,224,000 for its sales to the Gearbox division

    Though I gave the same result as the answer, I was wondering whether my way of thinking was correct. And if I was right, could you please explain to me which method is more reasonable and regularly used?

    Thank you!

    March 2, 2019 at 9:24 am #507123
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54830
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes – your way of thinking is correct.

    As to which is more reasonable and regularly used, it does not matter – every transfer pricing question in the exam is completely different, and apart from understanding the basic ‘rules’ you get the marks however you approach it.

    March 2, 2019 at 5:22 pm #507209
    akshaykopite19
    Member
    • Topics: 17
    • Replies: 13
    • ☆

    How come $5340k forms part of $7550k as explained by the book?

    March 3, 2019 at 9:03 am #507250
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54830
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    C is working to full capacity. Therefore if they sell more externally they will be selling less to the gearbox division.

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