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Thank you for the nice lectures.
You mention in the lectures the option to transfer a nominal amount of property ownership to the partner, and you use the example of transferring 5%.
How would it be if the partner would transfer only 1%, or even less, of the ownership to their partner? Would the 50:50 role apply in this case?
There is no percentage ownership set in the legislation and don’t worry the Examiner will not ask silly questions!