Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › The valuation of debt finance and the macaulay duration
- This topic has 5 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by John Moffat.
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- March 11, 2016 at 7:53 pm #305800
Hello sir,
There are a few questions which i would like you to explain me as these are creating doubts Γ―.
Q1.What is the exact difference between a BOND and DEBENTURE?
Q2. Is the calculation for Cost of debt of bonds and debentures the same ?
Q3. In the exam how am i supposed to know which way to calculate the cost of debt as sir to find out cost of debt of redeemable debentures we have to calculate IRR, but while going through chapter 8 of opentuition notes about the valuation of debt finance the valuation of redeemable debt ( bonds) is done in a different way using present values and then IRR method. Which confuses me.I would appreciate if you could clear these doubts sir π
Regards.March 12, 2016 at 8:11 am #3059611. No difference – they are different names for the same thing.
2. Yes – the same π
3. The cost of redeemable debt is always calculated as the IRR. In order to calculate the IRR you have to calculate the NPV at two different interest rates and then interpolate between them. There is no other way than the way that is done in the lecture.
March 13, 2016 at 7:52 pm #306234Thank.you sir π
March 14, 2016 at 7:05 am #306275You are welcome π
March 17, 2016 at 7:58 am #306758Hello sir,
When will the Macaulay duration lecture be uploaded?
March 17, 2016 at 10:57 am #306781When it has been recorded π
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