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The unwound finance cost

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › The unwound finance cost

  • This topic has 7 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by MikeLittle.
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
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  • March 11, 2015 at 5:16 pm #232040
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 43
    • Replies: 124
    • ☆☆

    Hi Mister,

    I am a bit confused about the finance cost journalisation when it is unwound.
    Here is the information:
    P purchased S two years ago, apart from the cash payment and addition share issuing, it agreed to pay a futher $500K in three years’ time. Current interest rates are 10% pa. The discount factor for three years is 0.751.
    So the question requires us to prepare current year’s consolidation. In the unwinding of discount section, the working is like below:
    Present value of deferred consideration of acquisition $376K
    Present value of deferred consideration of reporting date $455K
    The difference is $79K
    Then it says:
    Dr Finance costs (SPorL) $79K
    Cr Deferred consideration liability $79K

    This I am not sure. I was thinking shouldn’t this $79K be the two years’ unwinding finance costs? On a accrual basis, shouldn’t the finance cost only contain the second year’s instead of two years’ total? I mean surely at the end of the first year, when P prepared the group’s consolidated states, it should have charged the first year’s unwinding finance cost to the SPorL?

    Where am I wrong here?

    Thank you

    March 11, 2015 at 5:59 pm #232051
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23331
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    No, I agree with you. The only justification for the entry you have quoted is that the first year’s unwinding was not done and is therefore now being corrected in year 2. However, in my view, that looks like the correction of a fundamental error and should be treated as a prior year adjustment

    IF the question were asking you the value of the obligation at the end of year 2 then I can see the reason for showing you the working. However, it would still have been better presentation to show the obligation as at the end of year 1 as 376 + 37 = 413 and
    at the end of year 2 show as 413 + 41 = 454 (rounded)

    March 12, 2015 at 5:52 am #232102
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 43
    • Replies: 124
    • ☆☆

    @mikelittle said:
    … However, in my view, that looks like the correction of a fundamental error and should be treated as a prior year adjustment

    …

    Hi mister,
    Then how to make the journal of prior year adjust should it look like the correction of a fundamental error?
    Thanks.

    March 12, 2015 at 8:03 am #232110
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23331
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    That’s what I think, yes.

    Correct the retained earnings and the obligation brought forward – these will be reflected in the comparative figures for this year and within the statement of changes in equity as well as a full detailed explanation within the notes to the financial statements

    Ok?

    March 12, 2015 at 8:24 am #232115
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 43
    • Replies: 124
    • ☆☆

    So:
    Dr Retained Earnings $79
    Cr Non-current liabilities – deferred finance cost $79
    Is this corrent? I am a bit daft. Thanks.

    @mikelittle said:
    That’s what I think, yes.

    Correct the retained earnings and the obligation brought forward – these will be reflected in the comparative figures for this year and within the statement of changes in equity as well as a full detailed explanation within the notes to the financial statements

    Ok?

    March 12, 2015 at 9:28 am #232118
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23331
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    No. Deal with the 37 first – reduce retained earnings brought forward and do that through the statement of changes in equity as a correction of a fundamental error. The double entry will be added on to the obligation brought forward. The entire correction will be reflected in revised amounts shown as this year’s comparative figures

    Then deal with the 41 – the entry this year would be debit finance charges in the statement of profit or loss and credit the obligation

    Sure, the net effect is to reduce the retained earnings by an aggregate of 78 and an increase in the obligation by that same 78 but the two separate elements (37 and separately 41) should be dealt with differently rather than by just one single composite entry

    Ok?

    March 12, 2015 at 2:04 pm #232141
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 43
    • Replies: 124
    • ☆☆

    Okay, I understand now. Thank you.

    @mikelittle said:
    No. Deal with the 37 first – reduce retained earnings brought forward and do that through the statement of changes in equity as a correction of a fundamental error. The double entry will be added on to the obligation brought forward. The entire correction will be reflected in revised amounts shown as this year’s comparative figures

    Then deal with the 41 – the entry this year would be debit finance charges in the statement of profit or loss and credit the obligation

    Sure, the net effect is to reduce the retained earnings by an aggregate of 78 and an increase in the obligation by that same 78 but the two separate elements (37 and separately 41) should be dealt with differently rather than by just one single composite entry

    Ok?

    March 12, 2015 at 6:33 pm #232180
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23331
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Good :-). Glad to have helped

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