No balancing allowances or charges have been estimated as the Year 5 realisable
value of non?current assets has been estimated on an after?tax basis. (From Kaplan exam kit)
Can you please explain the logic behind this statement.
Thank you in advance :)
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TAD calculation
3y ago#1It is impossible for me to give a precise answer without knowing which question you are referring to!!
However if the value is on an after tax basis then presumably the effect of tax on the capital allowances has already been taken into account.
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