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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › SWAPS
sir i have another question from your june 2014 lecture, relating to swaps, i dont have trouble understanding the whole process of swap and savings etc but,
1. i have an issue understanding the result calculation y- 0.2%.for cmc and 3.2% for the counterparty, i cant understand that why is cmc is own borrowing a floating charge, its not mentioned anywhere in the question regarding his preference.
2. if he cmc had a preference , would it always mean that his preference would result in interest savings for him or both companies?
His preference would not necessarily mean a saving – he will only do it if it does give a saving.
If you are not told whether he wants to borrow fixed or floating in the exam, you choose whichever ends up giving a saving through swapping.
But sir shouldnt that calculation of end result be based on cmh borrowing fixed and then subtracting saving?
No. The saving is made if CMC wants floating, but borrows fixed and swaps. They end up paying floating, but at lower interest than if they had borrowed floating themselves.
I think it would help you to watch the lecture again.
