Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › stanzial inc dec 6
- This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 months ago by John Moffat.
- AuthorPosts
- February 12, 2024 at 10:21 pm #700183
1.why do we find asset based valuation using 20×6 figures?but for all others included figures of 20x as well?
how do we know for which year we have to value bussines using net asset method?(i dont think so they have mentioned in question)2. why did we deduct goodwill?is it because, in sofp internally generated goodwill is not recorded?
sorry if these are silly doubts ,my brain is having tough time processing it 🙁
and thank you so much(for previous response also) 🙂
February 12, 2024 at 10:32 pm #7001853. i watched question solvingin youtube of a reputed teacher,in that he finds mv using figures of 20×6 but doesnt deduct exceptional items while calculating PAT,why?
in exam kit,they have used extimated earnings of 20×7 to find mv.
which is the correct method?is both method correct? if yes,why didnt we duduct exceptional items for yr 20×6?February 12, 2024 at 10:48 pm #7001864
February 13, 2024 at 7:41 pm #700242As is stated in the examiners answer there is not really any one correct way of valuing on an asset basis.
However I do not know what you are meaning when you write that good will has been subtracted. The examiners answer take the net assts (including goodwill) and just adjusts for the value of the patent and the stock adjustment.As far as the date is concerned, on the information available the only sensible date to use is the latest SOFP.
I am looking at the examiners own suggested answer and I do not know what your exam kit (or your reputed teacher) has done 🙂
- AuthorPosts
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.