Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Sleepon Dec 2000
- This topic has 11 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by John Moffat.
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- November 1, 2014 at 7:42 pm #207131
Sir could you please help me in part (a) of the above question how is MIRR calculated.
2 3 4 5
Pv 2 5 6.7 189.6Multiplier at 11% 1.368 1.232 1.11 1
I know the pv and 11% is also calculate but how did they put this 11% in the formula to get the multiplier figure. Then we can calculate the reinvested value by multiplying the above two correct ?
November 1, 2014 at 8:07 pm #207133I am puzzled – the only exam question ever called Sleepon was asked in December 2005 and did not ask anywhere for MIRR 🙁
November 1, 2014 at 10:45 pm #207148Sorry sir this was December 2005 and MIRR was mentioned in (a)(i).
November 2, 2014 at 10:06 am #207203I have the actual exam in front of me, and Sleepon does not have a part (a)(i) in either the question or the answer 🙂
It asked for a report analysing whether or not Sleepon should undertake the investment in the theme park.
(MIRR was not in the syllabus in 2005!)
I can only guess that maybe you have this question in a Revision Kit and they have added an extra bit which was not in the original exam question.
November 2, 2014 at 10:21 am #207208Thank you sir. Actually I am using BPP revision kit and (a) (I) ask
Analyses whether or not Sleepon should undertake the investment in the theme park using the NPV,MIRR and duration method.And I have written the figure above and just wanted to know how they calculated this Multiplier at 11% p.a. I could make out present value.
Sir please help I think I am struggling with using the formula so just wanted to see using these figures.
Thanks.
November 2, 2014 at 12:40 pm #207235OK
This approach to getting the MIRR needs you to calculate the terminal value.
You then divide the terminal value by the initial investment, text the nth root, and then subtract 1.
For the terminal value, here you want the value at time 5.
The cash flow at time 5 is already at time 5 (!) and so the multiplier is 1.To get the time 5 value of the flow at time 4, you add on 1 years interest at 11%, so multiply the cash flow by 1.11
To get the time 5 value of the flow at time 3, you add on 2 years interest at 11%, so multiply the cash flow by 1.11^2 = 1.232
To get the time 5 value of the flow at time 2, you add on 3 years interest at 11%, so multiply the cash flow by 1.11^3 = 1.368
Hope that helps 🙂
November 2, 2014 at 1:13 pm #207250Thank you so much sir, its clear now.
November 2, 2014 at 3:23 pm #207263You are welcome 🙂
November 29, 2015 at 10:44 am #286098Hi sir, may I know when are we supposed to use this MIRR formula? Usually the formula we use is different from this.
November 29, 2015 at 11:57 am #286120You can use either approach – it doesn’t matter.
I would use the formula.It is just that the BPP answer that was being asked about happens to use the other way for some reason – they didn’t need to.
November 29, 2015 at 10:22 pm #286241Dear John
Was also wondering – In Sleepon the project is all debt and the company’s gearing changes as a result so why is APV not used instead of NPV?
November 30, 2015 at 7:23 am #286299The question specifically says in the requirements to use the NPV method – if they had wanted you to use APV instead then it would have said so.
It would, however, be a good point to mention in the report – that maybe APV would have been a better approach.
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