Skip to content

Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM

sleepon bpp q89 (12/05)

Aaishaasad11y ago
Hi Sir in part a mirr comes out to be 2.8% and cost of capital is 11% and NPV is negative , so it is written in the explantion that MIRR supports NPV since project would generate a negative rate of returnof 2.8 % per year,well below the required rate of 11% I do not understand the explanation.plz explain thank you
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11y ago#1
Have you watched the lecture on MIRR? The MIRR is less than the cost of capital - so the project is not worthwhile. The NPV is negative - so again, the project is not worthwhile. MIRR and NPV both lead to the same conclusion. (The ordinary IRR does not always lead to the same conclusion as NPV, which is one of the problems with the ordinary IRR)
NNoor10y ago#2
Im unable to calculate mirr in this ques thru the standard formula given in exam (203/426)^(1÷5) multiply by 1.11 minus 1. Plz guide me y dis formula is not applicable here as it was there in neptune ques?
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor10y ago#3
The PV of the return phase is 37.5 + 29.1 + 22.9 + 200.6 = 290.1 The PV of the investment phase is 200 + 226.6 = 426.6 Putting it in the formula gives: (fifth root of (290.1/426.6) x 1.11) - 1 = 0.0276, or 2.76%
NNoor10y ago#4
Right :)
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor10y ago#5
Great :-)
Sign into reply to this topic.