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Hey ,
There is probably a very simple answer here that I can’t see.
In chap 4 in the net asset workings for example 1 the share capital is 3M @ yr end and 4M @ acq. I think it is higher at acq because the 3M is representative of 60% therefore divided by 60 and *100 = 4M.
In example 2 the share capital in the net assets workings is 5M for both year end and at acquisition.
Can anyone help me to understand why the share capital is consistent in example 2 and is my logic correct for why it reduces in example 1?
Appreciate any tips anyone can provide.
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