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- June 4, 2014 at 5:25 pm #173830
when determined the number of shares to be exercised in equity settled share based payment,i learned that market condition/performance is not considered in estimating the number of shares that will likely to be exercised,But i couldn’t understand the reason of not taking into account of market condition.can u clarify this?
June 4, 2014 at 5:55 pm #173859Market conditions and performance will already have been taken into account when determining the terms of the share based payment
September 17, 2014 at 5:48 pm #195267Dear Sir,
I have a small doubt in this pilot paper Dipifr 2010 (Ifrs 2) question:
On 1 October 2010 Omega granted 250,000 options that allowed employees to purchase shares for $10 per share. The options are to vest on 30 June 2011 provided the employees satisfy certain performance conditions in the 9-month period between 1 October 2010 and 30 June 2011. The market value of the shares on 1 October 2010 was only $10, although by 30 June 2011 the market value was expected to rise to $12.
The fair value of each share option was estimated to be $1.80 per share at 1 October 2010. This estimate had increased to $1.90 per share by 31 March 2011
On 1 October 2010 it was anticipated that all the options would vest. However employee performance in the period since 1 October 2010 has been such that it is now likely that only 200,000 of the options will vest.I calculated correctly as follows:
Total liability: 200000 * 1.80 = 3,60,000
P/L (remuneration cost) = 2,00,000* 1.8 * 6/9 months = 2,40,000Now,
Could you pls tell me what will be the journal entry for yr ending Mar 2011?
How much would be the amount on the credit side?
Debit: P/L 240000
Credit: increase in equity reserves?Just a little confused as this involves 6 & 9 month thing, unlike other questions..
Thanks,
Swati.
September 18, 2014 at 5:31 am #195337Yes, credit “Other components of equity”
September 18, 2014 at 10:39 am #195371And the amount would be ‘240000’ in the “Other components of equity”?
If yes, then, what will we do of ‘90,000’ in the current yr ending Mar 2011?September 18, 2014 at 10:45 pm #195459Where’s 90,000 coming from?
September 19, 2014 at 9:54 am #195494I am sorry, its not 90,000. Its 120,000 (360,000-240,000).
How will this amount be treated in current pd? Or it won’t be accounted for in yr ending 31 Mar 2011.Total liability: 200,000 * 1.80 = 3,60,000
P/L (remuneration cost) = 2,00,000* 1.8 * 6/9 months = 2,40,000September 19, 2014 at 9:56 am #195496It will be accounted for next year. As at March 2011 240,000 is accounted for. In the year to March 2012 the remaining 120,000 is dealt with
September 19, 2014 at 9:59 am #195497Alright,
Thanks a lot.Regards..
swatiSeptember 19, 2014 at 10:02 am #195500you’re welcome
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