September/December 2015 Question 1 part (b)

This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by John Moffat.

Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)

Author

Posts
March 4, 2017 at 3:40 pm #375557
naduni
Member
- Topics: 1
- Replies: 5
In the above question can you please explain how the examiner has obtained the answer as $128m as the value attributable to shareholders before tax savings and redundancy benefits. I mean why has he deducted $37478m from $37350m ?
March 4, 2017 at 6:45 pm #375586
John Moffat
Keymaster
- Topics: 57
- Replies: 54851
Because the value is higher than the value of what they are buying – therefore the extra value is the benefit to the shareholders.
Author

Posts

Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)

The topic ‘September/December 2015 Question 1 part (b)’ is closed to new replies.