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Flick’s liquidity is boosted by the amount of money it holds in cash or cash equivalents. This accounts for 11·87% of the asset base, more than double the industry equivalent.
Can sir explain how to get the 11.87 %?
I would have taken 35/300 ie cash and equivalents/total assets = 11.67.
I suspect there is a misprint in the answer to give 11.87.
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