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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA APM Exams › Sep/Dec 2017 Q2 – Eview Cinemas
When assessing the impact on the SOFP, the answer calculates the amount available for investment in PPE by taking the sale proceeds ($7,674) and deducting the increase required in current assets ($902) and the book value of the debt ($3,200) to get an amount available for PPE investment of $3,572.
However, the question tells us that the debt is currently trading at $96 per $100 so why would the company pay $3,200 when the market value of the debt is only $3,072? Were we supposed to make the assumption that it would have to pay par value in order to get the interest and that there weren’t any willing sellers at $96?
If the company was able to redeem the debt at a reduce rate you still take the book value down to nil and then do you take the profits on redemption below par to reserves?
Many thanks,
Sam
I’ve reposted this query on the AFM forum, not here on APM.
It was so much easier when they were called P3, P4, P5 etc.