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sequentially numbered goods despatched notes are completed and filed in the warehouse.
If the finance department does not receive a copy of these gdns, it will not know when to raise the related sales invoices.
Why is it written that the finance department does not receive a copy of these gdns instead of the sale ordering department does not receiving a copy of gdns
It is assumed that a finance/accounts function is responsible for raising invoices – not a sales department responsible for ordering.
As it says in the answer, a copy should be going to the sales department too – so they can chase partial and unfulfilled orders. So it would have been valid to say that if the sales department does not receive a copy, they will not be able to chase unfulfilled orders (leading to a loss of revenue).
But I can not find in the answer that it is written that if the sales department does not receive a copy, they will not be able to chase unfulfilled orders (leading to a loss of revenue).
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