Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › section B q4 – rights issue
- This topic has 8 replies, 5 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by John Moffat.
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- June 20, 2015 at 7:47 pm #258212
Hi Sir,
Im just looking at your suggested answers and there is no calculation for the ex rights price. In my answer, part of the calculation was for this rights issue calculation. Would i get marks for working this out?
Regards
YJune 20, 2015 at 7:59 pm #258214Yazan, you just used bpp method. I did the same. Thats ok i think
June 20, 2015 at 9:19 pm #258218The question didn’t say we should calculate the TERP.
BPP calculated it in that question because it was a requirement of the question.
Calculating the TERP will not help in calculating the change in wealth of the shareholders. A rights issue will always leave their wealth unchanged.
June 21, 2015 at 5:15 am #258233@afuyegallas said:
The question didn’t say we should calculate the TERP.BPP calculated it in that question because it was a requirement of the question.
Calculating the TERP will not help in calculating the change in wealth of the shareholders. A rights issue will always leave their wealth unchanged.
and neither the exam question said to specifically use P/E ratio to calculate the change in wealth of the shareholders 🙂 either way you had to show the interest saving and the new total earnings , so using TERP is also correct I believe.
June 21, 2015 at 6:42 am #258234Olanrewaju, go and get some life bro!
June 21, 2015 at 6:45 am #258235The method used by Yazan was totally correct.
June 21, 2015 at 6:45 am #258236You calculate terp and then you calculate the revised share price and then you compare them.
June 21, 2015 at 10:34 am #258401Gvtftf, fahad, olanrewaju:
This is the Ask the Tutor Forum, so please do not answer in this forum.
June 21, 2015 at 10:39 am #258402Yazan:
Although you would not lose marks for calculating an ex-rights price (provided that you also carried on and looked at the effect of relying the loan), you were not asked to.
What olanrewaju said was correct. The theoretical ex-rights price ignores what the company is doing with the money raised and therefore assumes that shareholders overall will make no gain / no loss. The only reason that there may be a gain to shareholders (which is what was asked for in this question) is because the money raised is being used well – in this case to repay loans, therefore save interest, therefore increase profits.
That is what this question was testing, and that is why the PE ratio was given.
To refer to the ‘BPP way of doing it’ is nonsense. There is only one way of calculating the TERP and if that had been what was required I would have done it in my answer. This question was not testing TERP – it was testing the understanding of why a rights issue might end up increasing shareholders wealth (which the TERP itself will not).
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