Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA MA – FIA FMA › Section B – Performance Measures
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- June 25, 2014 at 7:27 pm #177699
-Background
The following information, for the year to 31 Dec 20X9, is available for Fun Co which operates in the toys and games industry.
Sales 7,660,000
Gross profit 1,200,000
Operating profit 590,000
Capital employed 3,330,000
Current assets 400,000The cost of capital of Fun Co is 12% per annum
Fun Co sold 350,000 units in the year 31 Dec 20X9. Total sales for the toys and games idustry for the year were $61,280,000.
-Task 1-
Calculate the following performance measures for Fun Co for the year ended 31 Dec 20X9:Operating profit margin : (My answer : 8%)
Asset turnover : (My answer : 2.3 times)
Return on investment : (My answer : 18%)
Market share : (My answer : 1%)-Task 2-
Return on investment (ROI) and residual income (RI) are both measures of investment performance.Does each of the following statements describe a feature of ROI only, RI only, both ROI and RI or nether of the two measures?
-Ensure(s) that managers will select investment projects with positive NPV.
-Provide(s) a relative measure of investment performance
-Based on profit rather than cash flow
-Facilitates the comparison of performance of business units of different size-Task 3-
An analyst has calculated the following ratios for Fun Co for comparison with the toys and games industry average.Fun Co Toys and Games industry average
Current ratio 1:4:1 1:2:1
Gearing 55% 30%
Interest cover 6 5
Acid test 0:8:1 0:8:1Complete the following commentary on Fun Co’s performance relative to the industry average.
Fun Co’s liquidity is ( ) than the industry average
It capital gearing is ( ) than the industry average
Its ability to service its loans is ( ) than the industry average, which could mean that Fun Co is having a ( ) level of profitability than the industry average.June 26, 2014 at 8:42 am #177726You have not said why you have typed up an entire question!!!
Since you presumably have the answers, it would be more sensible if you said which parts you need help with!Task 1: Your answers are correct (to the nearest %) except for market share. It should be 7,660,000/61,280,000 = 12.5%
Task 2: 1st statement is true for neither (both based on profits rather than cash flows)
2nd statement is true for both
3rd statement is true for both
4th statement is true for ROI onlyTask 3:
1) liquidity is higher (current ratio is bigger)
2) gearing is higher
3) ability is higher (interest cover is higher). Could mean higher profitability.June 26, 2014 at 10:32 am #177730im sorry sir. I forgot to wrote on top of the qusrtion that want you to check the answer for me. Btw. thank you for your reply sir.
Here i need your help to check my answer. Please assist me sir.
Question:
Kidling Co uses a std marginal costing system for cost control of its single product.Standard cost card :
Direct material 2.5kg at $12.60 per kg 31.50
Direct labour 2hour at $ 11.20 per hour 22.40
Variable production overhead 8.80
Fixed production overhead are budgeted at $160,200 per month.Actual result:
Production 6200 unit
Direct material 15,240kg purchased and used at a total cost of $195,920
Direct labour 12,590 hours worked
Variable production overhead $52,820Calculate:
1) Direct material price 3896(F)
2) Direct material usage 3276(F)
3) Direct labour efficiency 2261(A)
4) Total variable production overhead 139204(A)
5) Fixed production overhead expenditure 9200(A)Sir, i don’t know how to calculate this question. Please help me sir.
The direct labour rate variance in the month just ended was $1,908 favourable.
What was the total direct labour cost in the month?
June 26, 2014 at 2:48 pm #177741The material price variance is 3896 adverse (not favourable)
The material usage variance is correct – 3276 favourable
The labour efficiency variance is wrong – it should be 2128 adverse
In (4) I assume you mean the total variance production overhead variance. The correct answer is (6200 x 8.80) – 52820 = 1740 favourableIt is not possible to calculate the fixed overhead expenditure variance from the information you have given.
The standard cost of labour for the actual hours worked is 12,590 x 11.20 = 141008.
Since there is a rate variance of 1908 favourable, the actual cost must have been 141008 – 1908 = 139,100June 27, 2014 at 7:51 am #177758Sir, how do you get 2128 adverse for direct labour efficiency ?
June 27, 2014 at 8:41 am #177765The standard hours for the actual production are 6200 x 2 hours = 12400.
The actual hours are 12590.So they worked 190 hours more than they should have. At standard cost of 11.20 per hour, this comes to 190 x 11.20 = $2128 adverse
July 3, 2014 at 4:09 am #178076i really careless sir. i (X) with wrong std cost per hour that why i got wrong answer. hehe 😀 Btw sir, thank you so much. you have opened my eyes 🙂
July 3, 2014 at 7:37 am #178085You are welcome 🙂
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