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hi sir, can you explain to me how the FV of opening net asset is 64m ? isnt the adjustment of the Building has been adjusted before, in the year 20×2.. why do we need to make adjustment again in 20×6?
or assume in the year 20×6, we try to adjust every incorrect transaction since the 20×2? thats why the 20×6 figure is wrong too?
and sir, if say there is no adjustment on 20×2, the carrying amount of net asset in 20×6 would be its fair value right in this case?
with regards,
Aadditional question on part c (i)
in calculating the $76.6m, why dont they take the consideration on the loss of foreign exchange of of $3.6m to be net off against it ? is it because that specifically for cumulative exchange GAIN?
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