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Hello folks.
The model answer for the SBR 2020 SEP/DEC exam for question 1A uses “10m” as no of shares of the associate that later turns into a subsidiary to calculate the FV of the original 40% interest and the FV of the NCI.
My question is that where did they get the “10m” no of shares figure. The no of shares of the associate-turn-subsidiary isn’t given and as far as I can tell, there isn’t a way of calculating it.
Any help will be highly appreciated.
Best
T
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