- This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by
.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
- Posts
Hello folks.
The model answer for the SBR 2020 SEP/DEC exam for question 1A uses “10m” as no of shares of the associate that later turns into a subsidiary to calculate the FV of the original 40% interest and the FV of the NCI.
My question is that where did they get the “10m” no of shares figure. The no of shares of the associate-turn-subsidiary isn’t given and as far as I can tell, there isn’t a way of calculating it.
Any help will be highly appreciated.
Best
T
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
- The topic ‘SBR 2020 SEP/DEC QN 1 A’ is closed to new replies.