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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA PM Exams › sales mix variance
Why is it always the same total but just a different mix from actual mix, and standard mix?
Is it not possible that you could’ve just sold more of all 3 of the products – why does any changes in sales within the 3 products have to balance out, such that the net sales of units is the same?
This is for example 4
I don’t understand what you are asking.
For the mix variance we must use the same total because we are looking purely at the effect of changing the mix, not of changing the total sales.
