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Sales between Parent and associate

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA FR Financial Reporting Forums › Sales between Parent and associate

  • This topic has 5 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by MikeLittle.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
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  • September 27, 2014 at 7:50 pm #201987
    itsifeanyi
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    Sir,

    Could you please explain to me the treatment of sales between parent and associate in SFP and income statement.

    Thank you

    September 27, 2014 at 8:02 pm #201989
    soooraj
    Member
    • Topics: 12
    • Replies: 70
    • ☆☆

    There is no sales between parent and subsidiary because it is a single economic entity so also no purchases No receivable and no payable BTW parent and subsidiary Only if parent co has more than 50% control of subsidiary…

    September 27, 2014 at 8:49 pm #201994
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23300
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    soooraj – how is that helping?

    The question relates to sales between a parent and an associate – where did subsidiaries come into it?

    Besides which, you’re giving a misleading answer that has now made my job so much more difficult!

    Let me first correct soooraj and then I’ll get to itsifeanyi

    When there is any dealing between a parent and a subsidiary (and they can and they often (in exams) do trade together), when we consolidate it is as thought he two companies were a single unit. Thus, the concept of an intra-group trade becomes difficult – how can a company trade with itself.

    So in the Profit or Loss account, thre intra-group trade is eliminated from both revenue and from cost of sales, dollar for dollar.

    Next we should consider whether there is any need for a provision for unrealised profit that has been recognised by the selling group company on the sale but the goods are still in the closing inventory of the buying group company as at the year end.

    Calculate the provision for unrealised profit (the pup) and ADD that figure onto the combined cost of sales

    In the statements of financial position there could be a balance owed by one group company to another and a balance owed to one group company to another.

    On consolidation, when we treat the companies within the group as a single combined unit, we would be showing ourselves owing money to ourselves (and that would be stupid!)

    So, having reconciled any differences between the balance on the account receivable from a group company with the balance on the account payable to a group company, we then cancel the receivable against the payable. For the reconciliation exercise, check out the appropriate lecture in the video lectures

    Right, that gets the soooraj confusion out of the way.

    Now for the itsifeanyi question

    September 27, 2014 at 8:55 pm #201995
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23300
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    itsifeanyi, your question relates to sales between a parent and an associate “Could you please explain to me the treatment of sales between parent and associate in SFP and income statement.”

    Because an associate is not a group company, there is no concept of cancelling the sales / cost of sales in trading between the two companies.

    However, it IS appropriate to eliminate the group’s share of any unrealised profits arising from a sale to (or a purchase from) an associate. Calculate the group’s share of any unrealised profit and deduct from consolidated reserves.

    In the Consolidated Profit or Loss account, the figure relating to the group’s share of the associate’s results is calculated as:

    the group’s share of
    this year’s
    associate
    adjusted
    time-apportioned
    profit after tax

    and that figure is shown as a PRE-TAX income (or loss)

    In the Consolidated Statement of Financial Position, the figure “Investment in Associate” is calculated as:

    Cost as at date of acquisition of associate +

    Share of associate’s post-acquisition retained earnings –

    any impairment in the value of the investment

    Is that ok?

    September 28, 2014 at 4:01 pm #202047
    itsifeanyi
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    Hi Mike,

    Thanks for the explanation, I really do appreciate it.

    Is it then right to say that, in income statement when associate sells to parent the PUP element is deducted from ‘share of associate’s profit’ and when the parent does the selling, it is added to cost of sales within the parent’s column?

    October 13, 2014 at 4:50 pm #204311
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23300
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    That sounds good to me. This post has only just landed on my iPad. I don’t know where it has been for the last 2+ weeks – maybe it was another of those intransit items – one of many because I see there are a number of new posts in F7 that have just landed

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