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ROCE Calculation . Help!

Bbarbara201211y ago
Dear All Hope you can assist me. ROCE= pbit/capital employed ( total assets -current liabilities) PBIT is equal to operating profit? For example on the Profit and Loss I can find two figures 1 operating profit 2 Profit before taxation Which one of the above Can i use to calculate ROCE? Many thanks B
MMikeLittleTutor11y ago#1
PBIT is profit before interest and tax! So take the profit before tax, add back any interest charge, and there you have pbit!
Bbarbara201211y ago#2
Thank you , so it is not the same as operating profit? but Operating profit + interest? Many thanks?
MMikeLittleTutor11y ago#3
It's profit before tax (not the same as operating profit) + interest
Bbarbara201211y ago#4
Thank you Can you clarify one important point: For example Operating profit £100 Finance income £5 Profit on disposal of interest in associates £ 2 share of after tax profits of associate £3 PBT £90 Am I correct to use 90+2 only as a PBIT for the roce? Many thanks B
MMikeLittleTutor11y ago#5
What's the "2"? From the figures you have given I would have thought pbit was 90 (there's no mention of any finance charge that would need to have been added back)
Bbarbara201211y ago#6
I thought it was a form of interest that should be added to the PBT on the ROCE formula. Clearly I am still confused. What sort of interest should be added to the profit before tax? Thanks B
MMikeLittleTutor11y ago#7
Bank overdraft interest - it will have been deducted in arriving at pbt and now needs to be added back to get to pbit Ok?
Bbarbara201211y ago#8
Thank you
MMikeLittleTutor11y ago#9
You're welcome
MMaciek11y ago#10
Hi, Now I am confused. To get profit before interest and tax how we should treat overdraft interest. Because BPP revision kit in exercise Webster add back to the profit loan interest (which I understand) but overdraft interest is left. So its error in revision kit?
MMaciek11y ago#11
I mean should we add back overdraft interest to profit for the year to get Pbit or not?
MMikeLittleTutor11y ago#12
In real life you won't be able to separate overdraft interest from loan interest - it will all be shown as "finance charge" I'm not personally aware of any directive that says overdraft interest should be dealt with in a different manner than loan interest. I suppose it could depend upon the nature of the overdraft - is it by way of short term working capital or is it by nature long term financing? If it's long term, then treat the interest the same as if the overdraft were a loan. If it's working capital, then don't add it back - just treat it as an operating expense. Does the BPP question Webster push you one way or another?
MMaciek11y ago#13
Ok. Not only in webster. BPP also in examples in study text do not add back interest on bank overdraft
MMikeLittleTutor11y ago#14
I presume that the study text explains why. Would you like to replicate their (probably) one sentence explanation? Thanks
Bbarbara201211y ago#15
Hi , Looking at the extract below, OPERATING PROFIT 850 Finance income 50 Finance expense (100) Profit on disposal of interest in associates and joint ventures - 100 - Share of after tax profits of associates and joint ventures 20 PROFIT BEFORE TAXATION 920 Is the PBIT for ROCE 920 +100? Many thanks Barbara
MMikeLittleTutor11y ago#16
That's what I would take - what does the answer do?
Bbarbara201211y ago#17
I can't find an answer unfortunately.
MMikeLittleTutor11y ago#18
Pity :-(
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