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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › RIVIERE CO (DEC 14)
this is question RIVIERE CO (DEC 14) from Kaplan exam kit. Kindly confirm that following MIRR working is not correct as investment phase cashflow is added in the return phase cashflows.
Right?
Modified internal rate of return (MIRR)
Total PVs years 1 to 5 at 10% discount rate = €11,840,000 + €2,293,000 =
€14,133,000
MIRR (using formula) = [(14,133/11,840)1/5 × 1.10] – 1 = 14%
I am sorry but I do not have the Kaplan Kit (I only have the BPP Kit).
I do have the original exam question, but Kaplan have obviously amended it because the original question did not ask for the MIRR.
ok
Sir this question is also available in BPP Kit. Please could you confirm it as they did the same working. Thanks.
I have found the question 🙂
The answer is correct and they haven’t done what you say.
The NPV at 10% is 2,293,000.
This is the PV of the inflows less the original investment of 11,840,000
Therefore the PV of the inflows must be 2,293,000 + 11,840,000 = 14,133,000
