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Reverse NPV

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Reverse NPV

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • Author
    Posts
  • May 26, 2015 at 10:48 am #249113
    Carmel
    Member
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 3
    • ☆

    Hi John,

    I have a query regarding one of the MCQ’s for F9.

    ‘A company has agreed to lease a machine for a period of 8 years, with equal annual payments payable at the start of each year. The NPV of the agreement at a rate of 10% is $52,000. What are the annual lease payments (to the nearest $)?’

    Can you remind me how to work this out? Try as I might I cannot get the correct answer. I’m clearly missing something fundamental.

    Many thanks
    Carmel

    May 26, 2015 at 2:48 pm #249183
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54831
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    There is one payment immediately (time 0 – the start of the first year) followed by 7 more payments from 1 to 7.

    If the payment is X each time, then the present value of X at time 0 is X, and the present value of X per year for years 1 to 7 is X times the 7 year annuity factor.

    So: X + 4.868X = 52,000; of 5.868X = 52,000

    Now you should be able to finish it 🙂

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