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- This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by MikeLittle.
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- September 28, 2017 at 5:21 pm #408871
Dear Sir , thank you so much for your previous reply . i am re posting your reply because of my inability to understand your answer ,
your answer on my previous post was,
What you have quoted above is the definition of ‘Income’ (per the IASPLUS website)‘Income is increases in economic benefits during the accounting period in the form of inflows or enhancements of assets or decreases of liabilities that result in an increase in equity, other than those relating to contributions from equity participants’
The definition of ‘Revenue’ is slightly different (again, from the IASPLUS website)
‘Revenue is income arising in the course of an entity’s ordinary activities’
Well, that’s all very well except that now we are in a loop because, within the ‘revenue’ definition is used the word ‘income’
Instead of getting over-excited about this, think of the other words frequently used to describe ‘revenue’
These typically would be either ‘Sales” or ‘Turnover’ and, in both those cases it’s easy to see how your $10 sale would be included as part of revenue but would not be taken within the definition of ‘income’ (because there is no inflow of economic benefit … the sale of an asset at cost results in no improvement of economic benefit)
Is this any better for you?
Dear Sir if $10 sale cannot be taken within the definition of income, how can it make part of revenue . because as per the def, revenue is what that satisfies the def, of income and it should be from ordinary business activities, assuuming it was from ordinary business activities but result in no improvement hence doesnt satisfy the income def. so my question is , is it fair to put that in revenue sale in income statement.
and in ias 18 according to ias plus the def. of revenue was
Revenue: the gross inflow of economic benefits (cash, receivables, other assets) arising from the ordinary operating activities of an entity (such as sales of goods, sales of services, interest, royalties, and dividends). [IAS 18.7]but in ifrs 15 i can see the word gross inflow is not mentioned, but def is pretty much same.
Dear sir please once again help me with this question , and thank you so much for you previous reply.
September 28, 2017 at 11:52 pm #408933I thought that I had answered you – I was left with the conundrum that your $10 satisfied the definition of ‘revenue’ except for the fact that that definition started with the word ‘income’ and your $10 failed to qualify as ‘income’
So that left me with the same issue
However, given the alternative expressions generally used to describe the accumulated credits arising from the sale of goods or the supply of services (‘sales’ and ‘turnover’) your $10 fits nicely into those alternative descriptions
Now! Why are you getting so excited about this issue? It certainly cannot be a matter of pass / fail in the F7 exam! That I can guarantee with 99.99% certainty. It really is not worth wasting your time (nor mine!) tearing yourself to pieces over this irrelevance
Move on and worry about some topic that has a better-than-even chance of appearing in an F7 exam
OK?
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