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Revenue Recognition

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › Revenue Recognition

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by Stephen Widberg.
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  • April 1, 2020 at 3:20 am #566280
    utsavlt
    Participant
    • Topics: 31
    • Replies: 4
    • ☆

    Question : X sold good to Y on 31st December 20×1 and the control was transferred on same date. Consideration agreed by X was 2000 shares in Company ABC which had fair value of £4 at the date.
    However the price is due at 31st December 20×3 where the FV is expected to be £6 per share.

    Is this scenario possible since I don’t know whether non cash consideration and financing element can be present within the same scenario ?

    If it is possible can you please justify the amount of revenue to be recognized at 31st December 20×1 at in this scenario, tutor ?

    April 1, 2020 at 3:32 pm #566318
    Stephen Widberg
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 17
    • Replies: 3444
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Selling company is receiving shares in the future – it’s a possible scenario – I don’t think there’s a short answer!

    The EY guidance suggests that the company might apply IFRS 2 principles – so you would use the FV of the goods transferred

    https://www.ey.com/Publication/vwLUAssets/ey-applying-revenue-september-2019-new/$File/ey-applying-revenue-september-2019.pdf

    If you are receiving shares, then ‘financing element is irrelevant – that would only be relevant for CASH receivable in the future.

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