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Revenue IAS 18

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA FR Financial Reporting Forums › Revenue IAS 18

  • This topic has 5 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 14 years ago by richieinspain.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • October 15, 2011 at 7:57 am #50101
    nadir
    Member
    • Topics: 71
    • Replies: 43
    • ☆☆

    see Kaplan study text, Chapter Substance over form, example 6- revenue recognition,

    How can warranty $10 be minus from washing Machine revenue and at the same time be a revenue???

    How can interest $25 be minus from washing Machine revenue and at the same time be a revenue???

    Please help ??? 🙁

    October 15, 2011 at 10:10 am #88773
    ratna1238
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 73
    • ☆☆

    Read the solution carefully.

    The price of $500 each includes a credit free of $25 (interest) and $10 for 3 years of parts.

    So the real price of the machine is $500 – $25 – ($10 X 3)

    then recognise the $25 as interest income.
    and Warranty revenue $30.

    October 16, 2011 at 1:10 pm #88774
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23362
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Problem solved ( ? )

    October 30, 2011 at 8:35 pm #88775
    richieinspain
    Member
    • Topics: 19
    • Replies: 86
    • ☆☆

    Quick question here – warranty is paid upfront for 3 years at a total of £30. Therefore £10 hits the income statement in the first year and the other £20….? Is this best classed under creditors or deferred income in the first year. (on the basis that the income is not yet earned IAS 18)

    Given that in every instance the £20 for the upfront payment is classed as a liability is this not contradictory to the definition of a liability provided by the framework??? i.e. the £20 is not going to be transferred to a 3rd party. It is merely stored as a liability until the income is recognised…

    food for thought or am i understanding this incorrectly?

    November 2, 2011 at 4:45 pm #88776
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23362
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I think ( ! ) the answer would be to treat it as deferred income and recognise the 2 x $10 over the remaining 2 years.

    I agree that it does not satisfy the definition of a liability in that the settlement of a liability would probably involve the outflow of economic resource – which doesn’t seem to apply here

    November 10, 2011 at 8:45 pm #88777
    richieinspain
    Member
    • Topics: 19
    • Replies: 86
    • ☆☆

    Thanks MikeLittle

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