- This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by .
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
Interactive BPP books for September 2026 exams, recommended by OpenTuition.
Get discount code >>
Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Revenue (contract assets/ liabilities)
– 3 years contract from 1 Jan 2002
– Accounting year 1 Jan 2002 to 31 Dec 2002
– Contract price $12 million
– At 31st December 2002:
Cost to date $ 6 million
Estimated costs to complete $ 9 million
Amounts invoiced $ 4 million
completed percentage 40%
When i calculate the loss, there is a loss of $ 3 million. Why is the $3 million not apportioned, why we are not taking 40% of -3million, instead taking the whole loss amount when calculating contract liability up to December 2002.
May I refer you to the top line of the course notes on page 74 together with the example 4 on that same page and the solution to example 4 that you will find on page 183
If you still have a problem, post again!
It’s very clear from course notes, thank you!
You’re welcome
