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Hallo,
In the following example from Open Tuition notes, seems like I am not familiar with downward revaluation:
In his Statement of Financial Position as at 31 December 2002 he has buildings at a cost of $3,600,000 and accumulated depreciation of $1,080,000.
His depreciation policy is to charge 2% straight line.
On 30 June 2003, the building is to be revalued at $3,072,000. There is no change in the remaining estimated useful life of the building.So, we have a decrease in value:
$3,600,000 > $3,072,000 by 528,000.1. Is the revaluation a/c the same as the revaluation surplus?
2. I look at the t-account of the Revaluation a/c and the following happens:
Dr side Bulding 528000
Dr side Profit on reval 588000
Cr side Accum. depr. 1116000I don’t understand…
a) why do we dr the Reval. a/c with 528000, if we have an upward revaluation we dr it with the excess of depreciation, but here it is debited with the difference between the two costs of the asset, old and new?
b) why do we cr the Reval. a/c with accum. depr, if we have an upward revaluation we cr it, with the amount of revalued cost less the old NBV?
c) how can we have a profit of 588000 on revaluation, when we have a decrease in the cost of the asset? Does this profit goes to another account for the year, e.g. I/S to reflect it there as well?
Thank you!
There is not a downward revaluation!!
The carrying value of the asset at 31 December 2002 was 3600000 – 1080000 = 2520,000.
On 30 June 2003 there is another 6 months depreciation – 6/12 x 2% x 3600000 = 36000.
This brings the carrying value down to 2484000.
It is revalued at 3072000, so there is a surplus on revaluation of 2072000 – 2484000 = 588,000
The surplus on revaluation is not the difference between the revalued amount and the cost – that would make no sense at all. It is the difference between the revalued amount and the carrying value.
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