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Revaluation of tangible Non-Current Assets

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FA – FIA FFA › Revaluation of tangible Non-Current Assets

  • This topic has 5 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • August 17, 2015 at 5:37 pm #267544
    Zuzie
    Participant
    • Topics: 20
    • Replies: 23
    • ☆

    Hi John

    Please help me with this question

    I have watched the lecture on depreciation a few times but still confused with this:

    31 Dec 20×3 a company owned a building that had cost $800,000 on 1 Jan 20W4. Depreciation was at 2% per year

    31 Dec 20×3 a revaluation to $1,000,000 was recognised at this date the building had a remaining useful life of 40 years
    what is the depreciation charge for the year ended 31 Dec 20×4 and revaluation surplus balance as at 20×3

    What do they mean by 20W4 is that Jan 20×4?

    Step by step

    I opened all my T-accounts:

    Building:
    Dr Cash 800,00
    Dr Revaluation 200, 000
    Cr balance 1,000, 000

    Dr Depreciation 160, 000
    Cr Acc dep 160, 000
    based on 100/2=50 So I assume am depreciating on 50 years less 40 =10 giving me 160, 000

    Revaluation:
    Dr Profit 360, 000???
    Cr Building 200, 000
    Cr Acc dep 160, 000

    I get stuck on where taking this depreciation off the cost and again off the new revaluation value comes in as I did not see this step in the example.

    I know how to calculate the depreciation on the revalued amount giving me the 25, 000

    Thanks
    Zuzie

    August 18, 2015 at 9:56 am #267616
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    If (for example) 20W3 was 2013, then 20X4 will be 2024 (because X comes after W)
    But don’t worry about that in the exam – in the real exam they will use real years 🙂

    So, at the date of the revaluation, they had owned it for 10 years.
    So the total depreciation up until then was 10 x 2% x 800,000 = 160,000

    So the carrying value (net book value) was 800,000 – 160,000 = 640,000

    So the profit on revaluations / revaluation surplus is 1,000,000 – 640,000 = 360,000

    Hope that helps 🙂

    August 21, 2015 at 12:02 am #267911
    saif02bd
    Participant
    • Topics: 52
    • Replies: 62
    • ☆☆

    hello moffat sir!!
    I have observed that in few revaluations questions:
    1)the exessive depreciation on revaluation is deducted from the revaluation surplus at the end of the accounting period.
    2)in few questions we didn’t deduct the exessive depreciation from revaluation surplus.
    please explain sir!!

    August 21, 2015 at 7:49 am #267928
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Business are allowed to deduct the excess depreciation (and transfer it to retained earnings), but they do not have to – it is their choice.

    In questions, only do it if the question tells you to do it.

    August 24, 2015 at 6:15 am #268302
    Zuzie
    Participant
    • Topics: 20
    • Replies: 23
    • ☆

    Thank you John

    BTW I have passed both my F1 & F2 exams

    I am now dealing with F3

    So just wanted to express my gratitude for your lectures & support

    August 24, 2015 at 8:19 am #268322
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Thats great – many congratulations on having passed them 🙂

  • Author
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