Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FA – FIA FFA › Revaluation
- This topic has 7 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by John Moffat.
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- April 25, 2015 at 7:46 am #242535
What the means of W,X,Y sir?
April 25, 2015 at 9:27 am #242597Do you mean “what is the mean”? If you do, then mean is another word for average and is therefore (W+X+Y)/3
Why have you posted this under the heading ‘revaluation’? It has nothing at all to do with revaluation! (and I am not sure where you are finding this relevant anywhere for Paper F3, anyway 🙂 )
May 4, 2015 at 9:16 am #243964During the revaluation of a tangible non current asset i found it. One of my friend told me (w=past=2003, x=present=2013, y=future=2023).Which means that gap of ten years and a format of tense to revalue a tangible non-current asset. Is it right??
I found 2 question following the method in the tangible non-current asset ll at BPP kit.
I am confused.Plz help!May 4, 2015 at 3:45 pm #244013It does mean a gap of ten year, but not past, present of futures.
After W9 comes X0 and so on.
It doesn’t happen in the real exams.
May 4, 2015 at 7:44 pm #244059Sir kindly explain those w,x,y included in the year.Whats those mean? please!
May 5, 2015 at 8:24 am #244132Instead of having years written as normal (and as in the exam) such as 2018, 2019, 2020, 2021 etc., they have written them as 20W8, 20W9, 20X0, 20X1 etc.
Since X comes after W in the alphabet, 20X0 is the year after 20W9.
As I wrote before, they don’t use letters in the actual exam, but it is common for publishers like BPP to use them.
May 5, 2015 at 5:37 pm #244211A non-current asset had cost 800,000 at 1st January 20W1 and it was being deprecited at2% per year. On 31st Dec 20Y0 a revalution to 1,000,000 was recognised. Now what will be the revaluation surplus at 31st Dec 20Y0?
So i think the answer will be {1,000,000-[800,000-(800,000×2%×20)]} = 520,000. am i right sir?May 5, 2015 at 10:09 pm #244244Yes – you are correct 🙂
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