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There is a restriction on gift relief for the non-business assets in a Personal trading company.
I.e., (total gain) * (MV of CBA) / (MV of CA)Why do we not include goodwill in CA and CBA, when it is not exempt for CGT purposes? Is this because goodwill itself relates to the whole company?
Best Regards
You’re making it too complicated.
Goodwill is rarely if ever asked about in these questions.
If you understand the rule as it is and can answer the questions then you’ll be fine for TX
Keep it simple
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