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relevant cost

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA PM Exams › relevant cost

  • This topic has 7 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 13 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
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  • March 26, 2012 at 12:37 am #51985
    Vipin
    Member
    • Topics: 151
    • Replies: 374
    • ☆☆☆☆

    John Robertson, a self employed builder, will need to be on site whilst the building work is performed. He therefore intends to do 800 hours of the skilled labour himself. The remainder will be hired on an hourly basis. The current cost of skilled labour is $12 per hour. If john robertson does not undertake the building work for this customer he can work as a skilled worker for other builders at a rate of $12 per hour.
    what is the relevant cost if john robertson is intend to work himself in the new contract?
    pls help, since the figure is $12 per hour, i got puzzled.

    March 26, 2012 at 9:53 am #95801
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54655
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It is an opportunity cost. If he did not do the job then he could be earning $12 an hour. By doing the job himself he is losing income that he could have earned.

    April 4, 2012 at 11:39 am #95802
    pavanpavanmehta
    Member
    • Topics: 20
    • Replies: 32
    • ☆☆

    in a chapter 13 example 1 you have taken fixed cost different in original and flexed
    budget as per unit production.
    in a gtg guide one of the examples they have taken fixed same in originial and flexed budget.
    budgeted production and sales-5000 unit
    actual produced and sold-5400 unit
    fixed production overhead 6 hours @1=6
    they have taken 30,000 fixed overhead in both original and flexed budget.
    can you please tell why is it difference?

    April 4, 2012 at 11:52 am #95803
    pavanpavanmehta
    Member
    • Topics: 20
    • Replies: 32
    • ☆☆

    in a chapter 13 example 1 for sales volume variance you have taken
    standard profit per unit.in a gtg guide one of the examples they have taken
    standard price per unit.
    standard, unit, price, cost, actual, unit, price, cost,
    A 2000 4 3.5 2200 4.10 3.7
    B 2500 5 4 2000 5.25 4.3
    C 1750 6 5.25 2000 5.75 5.75

    sales volume variance=A= 2200-2000X4=800
    B= 2000-2500X5=2500
    C=2000-1750X6=1150

    Can you please tell me why they have taken sales price and you sales profit?

    April 4, 2012 at 4:22 pm #95804
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54655
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    In answer to your first question:

    It depends why you are flexing the budget. If you are simply asked to produce a flexed budget then you would usually leave fixed overheads the same – they obviously should not change with the level of production.

    However, in chapter 13, the reason we are flexing the budget is to explain variances. If we are using absorption costing, then the fixed overhead variances are more complicated and it is because using a standard profit per unit assumes that the fixed overheads are charged per unit (which assumes therefore that fixed overheads flex). The flexing of the budget at the start of the chapter is to help explain what is happening. If you watch the lecture this point is made clear.

    April 4, 2012 at 4:24 pm #95805
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54655
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    In answer to your second question:

    If you are wanting simply to explain the difference in revenue, then you take the sales price.

    However, in the exam we are always calculating variances to explain why the profit (or contribution) is different from budget. Therefore we always calculate the sales volume variance using the standard profit (or contribution if marginal costing) per unit.

    April 5, 2012 at 11:57 am #95806
    pavanpavanmehta
    Member
    • Topics: 20
    • Replies: 32
    • ☆☆

    Thank you so much. It is very helpful.

    April 5, 2012 at 12:32 pm #95807
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54655
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome

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