Recognising an impairment loss for revalued asset

Hi,

I have a question about the correct recognition of impairment losses for revalued items. I understand that the impairment is recognised as a component of other comprehensive income if an asset has previously been revalued upwards. Once the surplus has been reduced to nil, the remainder of the impairment is recognised in P&L — all clear for me so far.

Now if the entity has elected to make an annual transfer of the excess depreciation between the revaluation surplus and retained earnings, does this then mean that the impairment would run through the P&L earlier (as the balance of the revaluation surplus will have been reduced by the already executed depreciation transfers)?

Thanks in advance!