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- This topic has 11 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by John Moffat.
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- June 1, 2015 at 8:30 am #251218
z plc has dividend per share .30 ,p/E ratio 12 ,dividend cover 3
what is the market value of share ?
kindly with expainationJune 1, 2015 at 8:44 am #251232Dividend cover = earnings per share / dividend per share.
So earnings per share = 3 x 0.30 = 0.90
PE ratio = Market value per share / earnings per share.
So market value per share = 12 x 0.90 = $10.80.
June 1, 2015 at 8:48 am #251236thanks
but
B plc is to pay a dividend of .40 per share ,growth of dividend 5% .the shareholder return 20%
what is the current market value of share ?June 1, 2015 at 8:52 am #251241Why ‘but’ ??
Using the dividend growth formula from the formula sheet,
MV = (40 x 1.05) / (0.20 – 0.05) = 280c or $2.80However the formula gives an ex div MV. The question said that they are about to be a dividend and therefore we need the cum div MV which is 2.80 + 0.40 = $3.20
June 1, 2015 at 9:25 am #251256ok thanks am just confused
June 1, 2015 at 12:11 pm #251296You are welcome 🙂
June 4, 2015 at 4:49 pm #253144share capital 2000 ,500 8 % preference share
the profit for the year (after tax 30%) 420
what is EPS ?June 4, 2015 at 4:52 pm #253149a project require investment 24000
and generate inflow of 5000 per 8 year
what is IRR?June 4, 2015 at 6:14 pm #253268For the first question it is not clear what figures you are giving.
The earnings per share = (profit available for ordinary shareholders) / (number of ordinary shares)
The profit available for the ordinary shareholders = profit minus the preference dividend.
June 4, 2015 at 6:17 pm #253270Second question:
The 8 year annuity discount factor at the IRR must be 24,000/5,000 = 4.8
If you look in the annuity d.f. tables along the 8 year row, the interest rate (IRR) giving the nearest to 4.800 is 13%
June 4, 2015 at 6:19 pm #253272thanks john
June 4, 2015 at 6:46 pm #253299You are welcome 🙂
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