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rate of tax : 60% ?

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA TX Taxation Forums › rate of tax : 60% ?

  • This topic has 7 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 14 years ago by nimbostar.
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
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  • January 29, 2011 at 4:42 am #47273
    Rocco-Reborn
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 5
    • ☆

    Where an individual has an adjusted net income between 100,000 pounds and 112,950 pounds, the rate of tax between these 2 amounts will usually be 60%. This is calculated as 40% (the higher rate on income) plus 20% basic rate tax extra payable as the result of the reduction of the personal allowance. The individual should consider making personal pension contributions and/or gift aid donations to reduce the adjusted net income to below 100,000 pounds.
    Can you explain the 60% in a simple example? I can’t grasp it.

    January 30, 2011 at 4:45 pm #76886
    nimbostar
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 15
    • ☆

    Hi

    your question is a bit vague

    First of all, basic rate is 20% up to £37400
    the higher rate tax is 40% above £37400, therefore it’s not really 60%. If you are earning 100000, then your tax liability would be calculated as follows

    Salary 100000
    Personal Allowance 6475
    Taxable income 93525

    37400 @ 20% 7480
    56125 @ 40% 22450
    TOTAL 29930

    Therefore it is not tax @ 60%.

    January 31, 2011 at 10:17 am #76887
    Rocco-Reborn
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 5
    • ☆

    The BPP edition says so.. and it is said to have been reviewed by examiner!

    January 31, 2011 at 10:18 am #76888
    Rocco-Reborn
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 5
    • ☆

    thx anyway

    January 31, 2011 at 3:26 pm #76889
    Tax Tutor
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 3965
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The 60% tax is the marginal rate of tax between 100,000 and 112,950 ie the individual pays 40% tax but due to loss of the PA an additional 20% on the PA lost
    Hope this helps

    February 1, 2011 at 1:27 pm #76890
    Rocco-Reborn
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 5
    • ☆

    When the PA is lost, between this range, the individual will have to pay an additional 40% over the PA lost, which would otherwise be a deduction, making an overall tax effect of 80% between the range.
    If you could suggest a very easy example that clarify the matter it will be most welcome Miss Superwoman.

    February 11, 2011 at 12:36 am #76891
    l_ACCA
    Member
    • Topics: 35
    • Replies: 134
    • ☆☆

    I found some kind of explanation:

    “<...>basic personal allowance is withdrawn at the rate of £1 for every £2<...>
    So the offending £2 will bear tax of its own at 40 per cent, that is 80p, and also trigger the removal of tax freedom (through the basic personal allowance) on another £1 giving rise to an additional 40p of tax. So a total of £1.20 tax will be payable on £2 of income – and that equates to 60 per cent tax.”

    https://www.moneymarketing.co.uk/iht-/-tax-planning/the-60-tax-trap/1002070.article

    February 11, 2011 at 6:16 pm #76892
    nimbostar
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 15
    • ☆

    ahh,

    firstly my apologies for my previous post, I sat F6 in December 2010 based on FA2009. However I do understand now. It is the additional 12950 that will have 60%, I have put an example below.

    Income 100000 112950
    PA 6475
    Taxable Income 93525 112950

    TAX
    20% 7480 7480
    40% 22450 30220
    TOTAL TAX 29930 37700

    Difference in tax 7770

    As you can see this is equivalent to 60% of 12950.

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