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- This topic has 5 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 11 years ago by MikeLittle.
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- May 30, 2013 at 4:42 pm #127810
in the answer to prepare profit and loss why 1000 gain and land revaqlution is taken as 1000 why not approte to 6 mont the same as investemnt in equeity we took 400 loss in sentinel as 6 month divided by 12 month ? also in caluclating retained earnings as per retained earning ( prodigal retaind ernings from thequestion is 90000 but in the answer its added with profit and sentunal retined ernings so i got confused total retained erning is 201600 could you please help
also in caluclating non controlling interest why we should ad or adjuest rhe revulayion surplues and gain ? and when we should adjuest this ?
May 31, 2013 at 11:35 am #127969Because the gain was post acquisition and not accruing over time whereas the loss was.
I don’t understand your second question
If the revaluation gain / loss is post acquisition, then the nci is entitled to their share
June 2, 2013 at 4:40 pm #128281the second quetion how we dreived the figer 201600 for retained eraning why in the exam kit bpp retained erning 90000 with 89900
June 2, 2013 at 4:52 pm #128285I don’t have access to the question. Can you give me all the relevant information. In addition, can you make a bit of an effort to spell the words in your post somewhere closer to the accepted spelling. It took me some time before I worked out that “revaqlution” and “revulayion” were not only the same word but were both meant to read “revaluation”
Hear from you soon!
June 4, 2013 at 8:06 am #128800Hi alryami2009
The 90000 is the parents retained earnings pre acq, and the 89900 is the parents profits for the year in 2001.
June 4, 2013 at 8:07 am #128801Thank you Elsie
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