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Question from Kaplan

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA AFM Advanced Financial Management Forums › Question from Kaplan

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 2 years ago by mrjonbain.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
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  • August 15, 2022 at 9:35 am #663111
    usernamestillloading
    Member
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    It is expected that the factory will be able to produce and sell 80,000 window units per year although, in the first year, because of the need to ‘run in’ the machinery and its new
    workforce, output is only expected to be 50,000 window units. Each window is likely to be sold for €750, a price that represents a 150% mark-up on cash production costs.

    In the answer, to find production cost they divided the total revenue (50,000*750)/2.5 although the mark up is only 150%.
    Could you please let me know why they did that?

    August 15, 2022 at 10:25 am #663120
    mrjonbain
    Moderator
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 2421
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    0.4 X 2.5 = 1

    300 X 2.5 = 750

    750/2.5 = 300

    Think your difficulty may have to do with difference between markup and margin.
    Above is badly expressed by hopefully you get the idea.

    September 3, 2022 at 3:28 pm #665042
    usernamestillloading
    Member
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    Got it. So it is 100+150 markup where 100 is the cost.
    Thank you!

    September 4, 2022 at 9:10 am #665092
    mrjonbain
    Moderator
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 2421
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome.

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