Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Question Chmura (12/13)
- This topic has 5 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 1 year ago by John Moffat.
- AuthorPosts
- February 20, 2020 at 6:54 pm #562536
Hi,
could you please explain to me about the balancing adjustment of 500 in the question, and why did the answer deducted 125 for balancing adjustment. How did they get to that figure,
thank you!February 21, 2020 at 6:50 am #562563The 500 given in the question is not a balancing adjustment – it is the expected sales value at the end of 5 years.
The tax allowable depreciation is 125 per year, and so in year 5 there is a tax balancing allowance of the different between the tax written down value of 625 (1250 – (5 x 125)) and the sale proceeds of 500.
This is standard tax rules, and I suggest that you watch my free Paper FM (was F9) lectures on investment appraisal with tax, because this is revision of Paper FM.
You can find lectures working through the whole of this question if you follow the link to ‘Revision Kit Live’ from the main Paper AFM page.
April 18, 2023 at 11:57 am #683127Good day sir, since the home country is selling packaging material to foreign subsidiary. This brings to a intercompany transactions. We have included the expenditure for foreign subsidiary part. But why didn’t we include it as an income for home country(special packaging material)? is it because it was sold at cost and no profit were earned in home country, that’s why we no need to calculate it?
April 18, 2023 at 5:05 pm #683147Yes – what you have written is correct 🙂
April 21, 2023 at 4:02 am #683287Thank you so much sir 🙂
April 21, 2023 at 8:18 am #683294You are welcome 🙂
- AuthorPosts
- The topic ‘Question Chmura (12/13)’ is closed to new replies.