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Question Chmura (12/13)

HHanis6y ago
Hi, could you please explain to me about the balancing adjustment of 500 in the question, and why did the answer deducted 125 for balancing adjustment. How did they get to that figure, thank you!
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor6y ago#1
The 500 given in the question is not a balancing adjustment - it is the expected sales value at the end of 5 years. The tax allowable depreciation is 125 per year, and so in year 5 there is a tax balancing allowance of the different between the tax written down value of 625 (1250 - (5 x 125)) and the sale proceeds of 500. This is standard tax rules, and I suggest that you watch my free Paper FM (was F9) lectures on investment appraisal with tax, because this is revision of Paper FM. You can find lectures working through the whole of this question if you follow the link to 'Revision Kit Live' from the main Paper AFM page.
Ttha3y ago#2
Good day sir, since the home country is selling packaging material to foreign subsidiary. This brings to a intercompany transactions. We have included the expenditure for foreign subsidiary part. But why didn’t we include it as an income for home country(special packaging material)? is it because it was sold at cost and no profit were earned in home country, that’s why we no need to calculate it?
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor3y ago#3
Yes - what you have written is correct :-)
Ttha3y ago#4
Thank you so much sir :)
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor3y ago#5
You are welcome :-)
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