Question Ashanti

I am confused with working 6 from question ashanti from June 2010.

In working 6 from the examiner’s answer it says:

there
will be a revaluation loss of $11·56m – $8m i.e. $3·56m. Of this amount $1·96m ($2·2m less $0·24m transfer for excess
depreciation) will be charged against revaluation surplus in reserves and $1·6 million will be charged to profi t or loss.

It says $1.96 will be charged against revaluation surplus in reserves but in the other comprehensive income workings it shows a positive $1.6 m against Revaluation adjustment

Other comprehensive income for the year, net of tax:
Available-for-sale fi nancial assets 20 9
Loss on bond now recognised 0·6 29·6
Gains on property revaluation 12 6 –
Revaluation adjustment (W6) 1·6 19·6
Actuarial losses on defi ned benefi t plan (14) – – (14)
Share of associate available-for-sale fi nancial assets (W3) 0·9 0·9
–––––– ––––– –––––––
Other comprehensive income for the year, net of tax 20·2 15·9 36·1
–––––– ––––– –––– –––––––
Total comprehensive income and expense for year 38·08 53·6 10 101·68
–––––––––––– –––––––––– –––––––– ––––––––––––––

I can not understand why same 1.6 is charged in the P/L and OCI & why 1.6 charged in the P/L is positive.