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Question 4 June 2013

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Question 4 June 2013

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • September 2, 2016 at 1:50 pm #337073
    Dinh
    Participant
    • Topics: 18
    • Replies: 15
    • ☆

    Dear Sir,

    In this question: Option 1: GXG Co could suspend dividends for two years, and then pay dividends of 25 cents per share from the end of the third year, increasing dividends annually by 4% per year in subsequent years.

    In the answer: capital value at the end of the second year will be: 2·5/(0·09 – 0·04) = $50 million

    My question: GXG suspend dividends for 2 years. Why do we calculate value at end of the second year with 4% dividend increase as above?

    Thanks,
    DT

    September 2, 2016 at 3:03 pm #337084
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54835
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The market value, as always, is the PV of the future expected dividends.

    We use Gordons growth model to get the PV and hence the MV), but that gives a current MV on the assumption that the first dividend is in 1 years time.
    If the first dividend is later, then we need to discount the result to get the MV now.

    The numerator in the formula ( Do (1+g) ) is the dividend in 1 years time and the formula then gives the MV now.
    Here, you are given the dividend in 3 years time (which is 2 years later than in 1 years time), so using that dividend gives a MV in 2 years time, which then needs discounting for 2 years to get the MV ‘now’.

    September 3, 2016 at 11:24 am #337266
    Dinh
    Participant
    • Topics: 18
    • Replies: 15
    • ☆

    Thanks John

    September 3, 2016 at 2:43 pm #337301
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54835
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

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