Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Question 4 June 2013
- This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by John Moffat.
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- September 2, 2016 at 1:50 pm #337073
Dear Sir,
In this question: Option 1: GXG Co could suspend dividends for two years, and then pay dividends of 25 cents per share from the end of the third year, increasing dividends annually by 4% per year in subsequent years.
In the answer: capital value at the end of the second year will be: 2·5/(0·09 – 0·04) = $50 million
My question: GXG suspend dividends for 2 years. Why do we calculate value at end of the second year with 4% dividend increase as above?
Thanks,
DTSeptember 2, 2016 at 3:03 pm #337084The market value, as always, is the PV of the future expected dividends.
We use Gordons growth model to get the PV and hence the MV), but that gives a current MV on the assumption that the first dividend is in 1 years time.
If the first dividend is later, then we need to discount the result to get the MV now.The numerator in the formula ( Do (1+g) ) is the dividend in 1 years time and the formula then gives the MV now.
Here, you are given the dividend in 3 years time (which is 2 years later than in 1 years time), so using that dividend gives a MV in 2 years time, which then needs discounting for 2 years to get the MV ‘now’.September 3, 2016 at 11:24 am #337266Thanks John
September 3, 2016 at 2:43 pm #337301You are welcome 🙂
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