If a person sells his business for 200000 to be received in cash and the only chargeable asset of his business is goodwill the value of which has increased over a number of years to 150000 and the goodwill has a nil cost then what will be the chargeable gain. I calculated the chargeable gain to be 200000 because it is the amount of the sale proceeds and the purchase cost of the business is not given but this is incorrect. I don’t understand why
No – again watch the lectures, read the study notes and work the examples – there is no chargeable asset called “the business”! The business is made up of many assets only some of which are chargeable and upon which gains are to be computed!