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I want to understand that in this question there is tax benefit on balancing allowance if 30% and it goea as plus in npv calculation ..but in case if we have balancing charge that means the same figure will be a minus in npv calculation because sales are more than residuak value and so is subject to tax payment??
Correct! (Do watch my free Paper F9 lectures on investment appraisal with tax – I go through the tax rules in detail, and this is revision of F9).
