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Q4 December 2012

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Q4 December 2012

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 30, 2015 at 6:23 pm #250713
    at800
    Member
    • Topics: 28
    • Replies: 32
    • ☆☆

    Hi John,

    A strange thing: I’ve solved numerous questions and I was sure that Terminal Value should be discounted at discounted factor of the previous year, but I found the following answer for Q4:

    Net present value of PDur05 =
    ($2,500,000) + ($1,200,000 x 1·11^–1) + ($1,400,000 x 1·11^–2) + $970,000 x 7·191 x 1·11^–3
    = ($2,500,000) + ($1,081,000) + ($1,136,000) + $5,100,000
    = $383,000

    Please clarify why the terminal value in this case is discounted at (1.11^-3 – not 1.11^-2).

    Why? Because it’s not based on indexation based on the previous year?

    Thank you in advance.

    May 31, 2015 at 9:56 am #250848
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54835
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The operating flows commence at the end of year 4 (so time 4) and then for 15 years.

    So using the annuity factor for 15 years gives a PV at time 3, and we then discount for 3 years.

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